6 free sample questions. The full bank has hundreds more in this category.
A 53-year-old man presents with abdominal distension. Examination reveals hepatomegaly, ascites, palmar erythema, scleral icterus, and clubbing of the nails. A fluid wave is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A 62-year-old man, 6 weeks post total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy for refractory ulcerative colitis, presents with thirst, lethargy, and an ileostomy output of 2.5 L/day. He has lost 4 kg. K 3.0, Na 132, urea 12, creatinine 130. The most appropriate first-line management is:
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive dysphagia, fatigue, and glossitis. Bloods: Hb 89, MCV 70, ferritin 8, transferrin saturation 8%. Endoscopy reveals an upper oesophageal web. The most likely diagnosis is:
A 42-year-old man with chronic hepatitis C (genotype 1, viral load 5 million IU/mL, F2 fibrosis on FibroScan) is offered antiviral therapy. The current first-line treatment in Australia is:
A 30-year-old immunocompetent man who has sex with men presents with multiple cauliflower-like lesions around the anal verge. Biopsy reveals condyloma acuminatum (HPV types 6 and 11), with no high-grade dysplasia. The most appropriate management is:
A 35-year-old patient with a stab wound to the right groin has presumed retroperitoneal haemorrhage and remains profoundly hypotensive despite massive transfusion. Resuscitative endovascular balloon occlusion of the aorta (REBOA) is being considered. REBOA: